My Lord and My God !!

Sami Zaatari

One of the most common passages that Trinitarians use in trying to prove that Jesus was God, comes from John 20:28, And in this passage the disciple Thomas supposedly says the following:

And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God (John 20:28)

So from this passage Christians conclude that Jesus must be God because Thomas called Jesus his Lord and God. On top of this they assert that the immediate context following John 20:28 shows that Jesus did not rebuke Thomas for his confession, rather Jesus accepted the confession, and blessed Thomas. From this they reason that if Jesus was not God, then he would have rebuked Thomas and corrected, however so he did no such thing therefore they assert that Jesus must be God.

For starters anyone who reads the Gospels in context will see that they clearly show that Jesus was not God, rather he was a prophet, and a Messiah. Furthermore on top of this, nowhere in the Gospels do any believers take Jesus as God, rather the believers always take Jesus to be a prophet, and Messiah.

So with all of that said let us now turn our attention to John 20:28, for the sake of convenience I re-quote the passage:

And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God (John 20:28)

As you all know, the Gospel of John was written in Greek, and when one consults the Greek language one will notice that the words for Lord and God are called KYRIOS and THEOS. So here is the passage quoted again, only this time the actual Greek words are placed in brackets right beside the English translation, and we read:

And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord (KYRIOS) and my God (GOD)

 (John 20:28)

So doubting Thomas calls Jesus his KYRIOS and THEOS. Now if anyone has studied the New Testament, as well as the Septuagint, which is basically the Greek version of the Jewish Bible, then one will find out that these exact words are not exclusive for God alone, and that these two terms are applied to many men.

Strong’s own Greek lexicon defines the Word KYRIOS as follows:

is a title of honor expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their master

So one of the definitions of the term KYRIOS is a title of honor and respect, specifically a title of honor and respect given to a master by the servant. As we all know Jesus was a leader, he was the Messiah, a prophet, a judge, and the leader of his 12 disciples. Hence it would be no surprise for one of his disciple to call him KYRIOS, in fact this is what we would expect, and this indeed what we get.

So the fact is this, the term KYRIOS is not an exclusive Greek word to identify the almighty God. Furthermore as I said above, the term KYRIOS is used of other men besides Jesus, hence are we going to now claim that all of those who are called Lord must be God? Of course not.

Now let us move on to the word THEOS, Strong’s lexicon translates the word THEOS a follows:

-God’s representatives or vice-regents

-Magistrates and Judges

So again even the term THEOS does not exclusively have to refer to the almighty God, rather God’s representatives can also be called THEOS, and the same applies for judges and magistrates. As we all know Jesus was God’s representative, he was God’s prophet, as well as his Messiah, so indeed Jesus was God’s representative, and in that sense one can call Jesus a THEOS.

So the fact is this, Thomas calling Jesus his KYRIOS and THEOS in no absolute way means he was calling Jesus his almighty God.

Throughout the Gospels Jesus always identifies himself as a prophet, a messiah, and the Son of God. Each one of these titles do not denote divinity, hence we can confidently say that when Jesus was called KYRIOS and THEOS it was not a reference to any divinity, but a reference to his honorable position as a leader, and as a prophet.

Moving on, if one reads the Greek Bible one will learn that many people are called THEOS, the devil himself is called THEOS in 2nd Corinthians 4:4, we read:

In whom the god (THEOS) of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not

So the devil himself is called THEOS, should we all bow and worship Satan now? Obviously not! On top of this Moses himself is called a THEOS, and so are the Jewish judges found in the book of Psalms. Yet nobody is going to claim that these people are the almighty true God, and that we should start worshiping them!

So the simple fact is this, in no shape or form is Jesus the almighty God for being called KYRIOS and THEOS. We know from the context of the four Gospels that in no way do these terms refer to a divinity; rather they refer to his prophet hood, and him being The Messiah.

And Allah Truly Knows Best!

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Is Jesus God Because Satan Called Him “The Holy One Of God”?

There are Christians who tend to use the following verse to try and prove Jesus’ divinity.

Mark 1:24

24″What do you want with us, Jesus of Nazareth? Have you come to destroy us? I know who you are—the Holy One of God!”

 

Christians tend to argue that since Satan called Jesus “The Holy One of God” that means Satan knew Jesus was divine. That is why he called him that. They argue that God in the Old Testament is called Holy One (e.g.. 2Kings 19:22) so that means Jesus is God.

This is a very lame argument on the Christian’s part. First of all, Mark 1:24 says that the devil called Jesus “The Holy One of GOD”. So how can Jesus be God of God? Translators tend to trick the readers by putting “Holy One” in capital letters.

Holy one means a “saint” It could also be referring to a  messenger. For example, look at

 

Daniel 4:23

23 “You, O king, saw a messenger, a holy one, coming down from heaven and saying, ‘Cut down the tree and destroy it, but leave the stump, bound with iron and bronze, in the grass of the field, while its roots remain in the ground. Let him be drenched with the dew of heaven; let him live like the wild animals, until seven times pass by for him.’

 

So when Satan called Jesus “The Holy One of God”, it most likely means that he just called Jesus a messenger of God. As a Muslim I completely agree with this statement.

Mark 1:23 does not prove Jesus’ divinity, it actually goes against it and proves that Jesus is, was and never will be God!

 

And Allah knows best..

Jesus said:”I and My Father are One”..Why do Christians quote this verse?

By Sami Zaatari

Often when debates come up with Christians on the divinity of Christ, the passage from chapter ten in the book of John comes up; this passage is verse 30, which basically reads:

 

30 I and my Father are one

 Now I don’t understand why many Christians would quote this verse, specifically Trinitarians, because what does this verse prove? Trinitarians do not believe Jesus is the Father, so why do they quote it? Are they quoting it to try and show that Jesus is equal to the Father? Well that isn’t true, since the Gospel of John shows the opposite, in fact if we quote one verse back we read:

 29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand.

This is verse 29, it comes right before verse 30, and in verse 29 Jesus says the Father is greater than ALL, this obviously includes Jesus since he is not the Father. So therefore how Christians try and assume that this verse shows equality between Jesus and the Father is beyond me.

 In fact this is not the first time that Jesus says the Father is greater than him, he does it again later:

28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I (John 14:28)

So here we once again have Jesus claiming the Father is greater than him, so how is Jesus equal to the Father when Jesus says the contrary? Now Christians have come up with a way of trying to explain this verse off, they say that Jesus was talking as a man here, that as a man the Father is greater than him, they try and say that the Father meant he is greater than Jesus in rank and authority and not in essence.

However so what did Jesus mean in John 10 when Jesus said the Father is greater than ALL? Jesus placed himself in the category of ALL people, so therefore the Christian response will not work for John 10:29. It must be said though that the Christian response does not work for John chapter 14:28 neither, because the Christian argues from silence and is arguing something they have yet to prove. Christians cannot prove that Jesus has 2 natures, they can never get a single quote from the lips of Jesus saying I am man and Divine, that I have 2 natures and I gave one up and took on the man nature, this is non-existent, so therefore the response is from silence provided with no proof or a solid basis.

 1-The fact is that the Bible shows that the Father is greater than Jesus in essence, the Father is all-knowing and Jesus is not.

 2-The Father gives Jesus everything from miracle to doctrine.

 3-Jesus begs the Father to save him, obviously showing that life and death is controlled by the Father and NOT Jesus. 

 For all these arguments the Christian will say as man Jesus is not all-knowing, as man Jesus receives things from the Father, however so I will kindly ask the Christian bring this proof from the words of Jesus, they shall never be able to do it, this doctrine is an invention and not something to be found from Jesus.

So therefore in conclusion, John 10:30 proves nothing in support of the divinity of Jesus, it does not show equality, since Jesus made it clear that the Father is greater than him, so therefore Jesus is not equal with the Father.

And Jesus was a prophet of God and Allah knows Best!